Indian Polity MCQ: Asked in WBCS Prelims – 2020
Q34. The Constitution of India was adopted by
A. Indian National Congress
B. Indian League
C. Indian Constituent Assembly
D. None of the above
Answer – C. Indian Constituent Assembly
Explanation-
Q35. When was Madras State officially renamed Tamil Nadu?
A. 14 January 1969
B. 4 December 1969
C. 27 January 1969
D. 16 August 1969
Answer – A. 14 January 1969
Explanation-
Q36. ‘Indian Constitution’ is adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
A. 15th August 1947
B. 26th January 1950
C. 26th November 1949
D. 2nd October 1950
Answer – C. 26th November 1949
Explanation-
Q37. The first non-Congress government at the Center was led by
A. Joy Prakash Narayan
B. Morarji Desai
C. Chaudhury Charan Singh
D. Atal Behari Vajpayee
Answer – B. Morarji Desai
Explanation-
Q38. The Supreme Court of India upheld that RTI was applicable to the
A. Office of the CBI also.
B. Office of the NIA also.
C. Office of the CJI also.
D. Office of the PMO also.
Answer – C. Office of the CJI also.
Explanation-
Q39. The literal meaning of ‘Lokpal’ is
A. Caretaker of the people
B. Execution of public services
C. Looking after the Weaker section of society
D. Motivate civilians
Answer – A. Caretaker of the people
Explanation-
Q40. Indian Constitution was prepared by
A. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Sardar Ballav Bhat Patel
Answer – C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation-
Q41. The Chairperson of Rajya Sabha is
A. President of India
B. Vice President of India
C. Prime Minister of India
D. Home Minister of India
Answer – B. Vice President of India
Explanation-
Q42. According to Indian Constitution, the State Legislatures select the
A. Members of Lok Sabha
B. Members of Rajya Sabha
C. Chief Justice of the High Court of the state
D. Attorney General of India
Answer – B. Members of Rajya Sabha
Explanation-
Q43. In the logo of Lokpal, vigilance is represented by
A. Tricolor
B. Ashoka Chakra
C. Judges bench
D. Two hands
Answer – B. Ashoka Chakra
Explanation-
Indian Polity MCQ: Asked in WBCS Prelims – 2019
Q44. The right to vote and to be elected in India is a
A. Fundamental Right
B. Natural Right
C. Constitutional Right
D. Legal Right
Answer – C. Constitutional Right
Explanation-
Q45. In the Constitution of India, the promotion of international peace and security is included in the
A. Preamble to the Constitution.
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Duties.
D. Ninth Schedule.
Answer – B. Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation-
Q46. What will follow if a Monetary Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
B. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.
C. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.
D. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.
Answer – A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Explanation-
Q47. The idea of a ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
A. Preamble
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Rights.
D. Seventh Schedule.
Answer – B. Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation-
Q48. The fundamental object of the ‘Panchayati Raj‘ system is to ensure which among the following?
A. People’s participation in development
B. Political accountability
C. Democratic decentralization
D. Financial mobilisation
Answer – C. Democratic decentralization
Explanation-
Q49. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
A. The President of India
B. The Parliament
C. The Chief Justice of India
D. The Law Commission
Answer – B. The Parliament
Explanation-
Q50. Mark the correct date and year in which the Indian Constitution came into being forced
A. 15th August 1947
B. 24th July 1948
C. 20th January 1951
D. 26th January 1950
Answer – D. 26th January 1950
Explanation-
Q51. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President to present which of the following on the desk of the Parliament —
- Recommendations of Union Finance Commission.
- Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
- Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
- Report of the National Scheduled Caste Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer – C. 1, 3 and 4
Explanation-
Q52. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees all citizens the freedom of speech and expression?
A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 19
Answer – D. Article 19
Explanation-
Q53. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States?
A. First Schedule
B. Second Schedule
C. Sixth Schedule
D. Seventh Schedule
Answer – D. Seventh Schedule
Explanation-
Q54. The eighty-sixth Amendment of the Constitution of India altered a Directive Principle of the Constitution to provide for
A. early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
B. the state to provide free legal aid.
C. encouraging village panchayats.
D. prohibiting intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health.
Answer – A. early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
Explanation-
Q55. District Judge in a state is appointed by the
A. Governor
B. Chief Justice of High court
C. Council of Ministers of the State
D. Advocate General of the state
Answer – A. Governor
Explanation-
Q56. The Impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in
A. either House of the Parliament.
B. a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament.
C. the Lok Sabha alone.
D. the Rajya Sabha alone.
Answer – A. either House of the Parliament.
Explanation-
Q57. Consider the following statements :
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.. Consist of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.
2.. Examine public expenditure not only from a legal and formal point of view to discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of the economy, prudence, wisdom, and propriety.
3. Examine the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer –B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation-
Q58. Power to grant pardons is enjoyed by which of the following constitutional authorities?
A. President
B. President and Governor of a State
C. Governor
D. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
Answer – B. President and Governor of a State
Explanation-
Q59. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution lays down the establishment of the
A. Planning Commission
B. Inter-State Council
C. Rite Waters Tribunal
D. Finance Commission
Answer – D. Finance Commission
Explanation-
Q60. The Panchayati Raj System of India has
A. One tier
B. Two tiers
C. Three tiers
D. Four tiers
Answer – C. Three tiers
Explanation-
Q61. Which of the following Amendments of the Indian Constitution is related to the reservation of SCs and STs and representation of Anglo Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Assembly?
A. 54th Amendment
B. 63rd Amendment
C. 111th Amendment
D. 79th Amendment
Answer – D. 79th Amendment
Explanation-
Q62. The Constitution Bill (123rd Amendment), 2017 deals with
A. empowers National Commission on Backward Classes
B. empowers National Council for Backward Classes
C. empowers National Council for Schedule Castes
D. empowers National Commission for Schedule Castes
Answer – A. empowers National Commission on Backward Classes
Explanation-
Q63. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with adultery?
A. 496
B. 497
C. 498
D. 499
Answer – B. 497
Explanation-
Q64. The executive power of the state is bestowed on the Governor by which article of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 156
B. Article 155
C. Article 154
D. Article 153
Answer – C. Article 154
Explanation-
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